(PDF) ISTQB Certified Tester CTFL4 Exam and Certification Test Engine
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NEW QUESTION # 96
Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?
I. Analyzing the impact of changes.
ii. A measure of code quality.
iii. Accurate test estimation.
iv. Making testing auditable.
Select the correct answer:
- A. i and iv
- B. ii and iii
- C. i and iii
- D. i and ii
Answer: A
Explanation:
Good traceability between the test basis and test work products provides several advantages: i.Analyzing the impact of changes:Traceability allows for easy identification of which parts of the test work products will be affected by changes in the requirements or design, facilitating impact analysis. iv.Making testing auditable:
Traceability ensures that there is a clear connection between the requirements and the test cases, which makes the testing process auditable and provides evidence that all requirements have been tested.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?
- A. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.
- B. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied
- C. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.
- D. Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traceability primarily refers to the ability to link test cases back to their sources in the test basis, such as requirements or design documents. This linkage allows for the determination of coverage, impact analysis, and maintaining consistency across test documentation. However, traceability does not directly enable the application of experience-based test techniques, which are more about using the tester's intuition and experience. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 does not state that traceability enables experience-based techniques, making option B the false statement.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?
- A. The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.
- B. The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities
- C. The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.
- D. The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A typical test plan includes various elements, such as resource requirements, test completion criteria, and suspension/resumption criteria. However, the list of product risks that have not been fully mitigated is generally not included in the test plan but rather in the risk management documentation.
The test plan focuses on planning and executing tests, including resource allocation and defining criteria for test suspension and resumption.
While risk management is crucial, unmitigated risks are typically documented in risk logs or separate risk management plans.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes the activities of "testing" and
"debugging"?
- A. Testing identifies a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
- B. Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and reproducing them.
- C. Testing triggers a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
- D. Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Testing and debugging are separate but related activities. Testing executes the software to identify failures that result from defects (A). Debugging is the developer's responsibility and involves finding the cause of a failure (defect), analyzing it, and fixing the defect. The ISTQB syllabus explicitly differentiates these activities. Testing does not modify the software, whereas debugging does.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which ONE of the following options CANNOT be subjected to static analysis?
- A. UML (Unified Modeling Language) models
- B. BPMN (Business Process Modeling and Notation) models
- C. COTS (Commercial off-the-shelf)
- D. Source code
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Static analysis requires access towork products like source code, models, or documentation, making itimpossible to analyze Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software(A) because its source code is typically unavailable. Static analysis is applicable to source code (B), BPMN models (C), and UML diagrams (D).
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?
- A. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.
- B. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.
- C. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.
- D. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Effort estimate does not depend on the budget of the project, but rather on the scope, complexity, and quality of the software product and the testing activities1. Budget is a constraint that may affect the feasibility and accuracy of the effort estimate, but it is not a factor that determines the effort estimate. Effort estimate is the amount of work required to complete the testing activities, measured in terms of person-hours, person-days, or person-months2.
The other options are correct because:
A . Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up, as they are interrelated aspects of the test planning process3. Resources are the people, tools, equipment, and facilities needed to perform the testing activities4. Schedule is the time frame and sequence of the testing activities, aligned with the project milestones and deadlines5.
B . Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known, as it affects the number and severity of the defects that may be found and the rework that may be needed to fix them6. Quality is the degree to which the software product satisfies the specified requirements and meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients7.
D . Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques, which relies on the judgment and expertise of the testers and other project stakeholders to estimate the test effort based on similar projects or tasks done in the past. Experience based estimation can be useful when there is a lack of historical data, formal methods, or detailed information about the software product and the testing activities.
Reference =
1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 154
2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 155
3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 156
4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 157
5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 158
6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 159
7 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
[8] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 160
[9] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 161
NEW QUESTION # 102
What is test oracle?
- A. The source for the actual results
- B. The source of input conditions
- C. The source of expected results
- D. The source of lest objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level(CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.
NEW QUESTION # 103
A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.
Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?
- A. The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed
- B. You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue
- C. You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification
- D. You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue
Answer: D
Explanation:
As a functional tester, you should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue. A defect report is a document that records the occurrence, nature, and status of a defect detected during testing, and provides information for further investigation and resolution. A defect report should include relevant information such as the defect summary, the defect description, the defect severity, the defect priority, the defect status, the defect origin, the defect category, the defect reproduction steps, the defect screenshots, the defect attachments, etc. Opening a defect report is a good practice for any tester who finds a defect in the software system, regardless of the type or level of testing performed. The other options are not recommended, because:
* The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality, but that does not mean that as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed. Performance efficiency is a quality characteristic that measures how well the software system performs its functions under stated conditions, such as the response time, the resource utilization, the throughput, etc.
Performance efficiency is an important aspect of the user experience, especially for web applications that run on different devices and networks. Even if the functional tests passed, meaning that the software system met the functional requirements, the performance issue observed on some devices could still affect the user satisfaction, the usability, the reliability, and the security of the software system. Therefore, as a functional tester, you have the responsibility to report the performance issue as a defect, and provide as much information as possible to help the developers or the performance testers to investigate and resolve it.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.
Which of the following review types does this review refer to?
- A. Informal review
- B. Inspection
- C. Walkthrough
- D. Audit
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the characteristics of a walkthrough. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?
- A. Can't be determined
- B. Covering all states at least once
- C. Covering all transitions at least once
- D. Covering only start and end states
Answer: C
Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page 49-50.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels
- B. A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure
- C. Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions
- D. A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error
Answer: C
Explanation:
Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions. A failure is an event in which the software system does not perform a required function or performs a function incorrectly, according to the expected behavior. A defect is a flaw in the software system or a deviation from the requirements or the specifications, that may cause a failure. However, not all failures are caused by defects, as some failures may be caused by environmental conditions, such as hardware malfunctions, network interruptions, power outages, incompatible configurations, etc. Environmental conditions are factors that affect the operation of the software system, but are not part of the software system itself. The other statements are false, because:
A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure. This statement is false, because a defect may or may not produce a failure, depending on the inputs, the outputs, the states, or the scenarios of the software system, and a bug is just another term for a defect, so it has the same possibility of producing a failure as a defect. For example, a defect in a rarely used feature or a hidden branch of the code may never produce a failure, while a defect in a frequently used feature or a critical path of the code may produce a failure often. A bug is not a different concept from a defect, but rather a synonym or a colloquial term for a defect, so it has the same definition and implications as a defect.
A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error. This statement is false, because an error is not a consequence of a failure, but rather a cause of a defect. An error is a human action or a mistake that produces a defect in the software system, such as a typo, a logic flaw, a requirement misunderstanding, etc. An error is not observable in the software system, but rather in the human mind or the human work products, such as the code, the design, the documentation, etc. A failure is not a cause of an error, but rather a result of a defect, which is a result of an error. For example, an error in the code may cause a defect in the software system, which may cause a failure in the software behavior.
Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels. This statement is false, because bugs and failures are not different types of defects, but rather different terms for defects and their manifestations. As mentioned before, bugs are just another word for defects, and failures are the events in which the software system does not perform as expected due to defects. Bugs and failures can be found at any test level, not only at component testing or higher test levels. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Defects and failures can occur and be detected at any test level, depending on the test objectives, the test basis, the test techniques, and the test environment. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Failure, Defect, Bug, Environmental Condition, Error, Test Level2
NEW QUESTION # 107
The statement: "Test activities should start in the early stages of the lifecycle, adhering to the testing principle of early testing" is relevant to which of the recognized software development models?
- A. Iterative development model.
- B. Incremental development model.
- C. Sequential development model.
- D. All the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The principle of early testing is applicable to all recognized software development models, including sequential, iterative, and incremental models. Starting test activities early in the lifecycle helps in identifying and addressing defects as soon as possible, which can save time and costs by preventing defects from propagating to later stages of development. This proactive approach enhances the overall quality and efficiency of the software development process. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.3
NEW QUESTION # 108
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€
- B. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€
- C. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€
- D. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?
- A. Fault seeding tool.
- B. Static analysis tool.
- C. Test data preparation tool
- D. Containerisation tool
Answer: B
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is best suited for determining source code compliance with coding standards. These tools analyze the code without executing it and can check for adherence to coding standards, syntax errors, and other static properties of the code. The ISTQB CTFL syllabus emphasizes the role of static analysis tools in verifying that code meets predefined standards and guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.
- A. The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.
- B. The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.
- C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods
- D. The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods
Answer: C
Explanation:
The thought process of the software company is incorrect, because it assumes that each artifact can be reviewed using only one review method, and that the review method depends solely on the criticality of the artifact. This is a simplistic and rigid approach that does not consider the benefits and limitations of different review methods, the context and purpose of the review, and the feedback and improvement opportunities that can be gained from multiple reviews. According to the CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, the selection of review methods should be based on several factors, such as the type and level of detail of the artifact, the availability and competence of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, the expected defects and risks, and the desired outcomes and quality criteria. Moreover, the same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods at different stages of the development lifecycle, to ensure that the artifact meets the changing requirements, standards, and expectations of the stakeholders. For example, a requirement specification can be reviewed using an informal review method, such as a walkthrough, to get an initial feedback from the users and developers, and then using a formal review method, such as an inspection, to verify the completeness, correctness, and consistency of the specification. Therefore, the software company should adopt a more flexible and context-sensitive approach to selecting and applying review methods for different artifacts, rather than following a fixed and arbitrary rule. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.2.1, page 31-32; Section 3.2.2, page 33-34; Section 3.2.3, page 35-36.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to usemore than one method for estimating test effort. You are responsible for estimating test effort for the next project. Based on historical data, the development-to-test effort ratiois5:3.
The initial estimate for thedevelopment effort is 450 person-days.
Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimatedtest effortusing the ratio-based method?
- A. 270 person-days
- B. 180 person-days
- C. 720 person-days
- D. 750 person-days
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Theratio-based estimation methodrelies on historical relationships betweendevelopment and testing effort.
Using the given5:3 ratio:
Thus, the correct answer is270 person-days (D).
* (A) and (C) are incorrectas they overestimate the effort.
* (B) underestimates the testing effort based on the ratio.
Ratio-based estimationhelps allocate resources effectively based on past project data.
NEW QUESTION # 112
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