The Most Efficient NCLEX-RN Pdf Dumps For Assured Success [2024]
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Understand the objectives of the NCLEX-RN exam.
The objective of the NCLEX-RN® certification is to test your ability to use critical thinking skills to make nursing judgments. This is a much different type of testing than what you have done in nursing school. Nursing schools test your knowledge of the nursing process. They want to know if you have learned all the nursing terms. On the NCLEX-RN® exam, they want to see if you have learned to apply the nursing knowledge you learned in school to the nursing process. Improvement of knowledge and retention of information on the NCLEX-RN exam is based on how well you answered questions. NCLEX-RN Dumps tests your knowledge and understanding. Aid material helps you learn new concepts and retain information that you learned in school. Knowledge like textbooks are no longer used for this test. It's not enough to memorize the answer to every question.
You must understand the concept behind the question and know the answers to all questions. That is what you are tested on the NCLEX-RN exam. Pool of questions is important because it means that there are questions you have not seen before. Links between topics are also important. Questions in one topic might be related to questions in another topic. Training your brain to recognize this can help you identify those questions and prepare for them. Exam cram is not as important as knowing what to study for. You must know the content of the exam.
To be licensed as a registered nurse in the United States, you must meet the following requirements:
Be a citizen of the U.S.
Be in good health.
Have passed the NCLEX exam.
Have been registered to practice as an entry-level nurse.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A 34-year-old client who is gravida 1, para 0 has a history of infertility and conceived this pregnancy while taking fertility drugs. She is at 32 weeks' gestation and is carrying triplets. She is complaining of low back pain and a feeling of pelvic pressure. Her cervical exam reveals a long, closed cervix. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing mild uterine contractions every 7-8 minutes after the nurse has placed her on the fetal monitor. Her condition should indicate that:
- A. Her cervix shows she will likely deliver soon
- B. She may be in preterm labor because this is more common with multiple pregnancies
- C. She most likely has a urinary tract infection (UTI) because this is common with pregnancy
- D. The nurse should not be alarmed because mild uterine activity is common at 32 weeks' gestation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Her cervical exam is normal. There are no cervical changes at this time. (B) Braxton Hicks contractions may be common throughout pregnancy, but they are not regular. (C) Rhythmical contractions in conjunction with low back pain and pelvic pressure at 32 weeks in a woman carrying triplets are of great concern. She may be in preterm labor. (D) UTIs are common in pregnancy due to the enlarging uterus compressing the ureters and the stasis of urine. The woman would be more likely to complain of urinary frequency and urgency, fever or chills, and malodorous urine with a UTI.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A couple is planning the conception of their first child. The wife, whose normal menstrual cycle is 34 days in length, correctly identifies the time that she is most likely to ovulate if she states that ovulation should occur on day:
- A. 14+2 days
- B. 16+2 days
- C. 22+2 days
- D. 20+2 days
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Ovulation is dependent on average length of menstrual cycle, not standard 14 days. (B) Ovulation occurs
14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 16). (C) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 equals 20). (D) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 22).
NEW QUESTION # 37
On morning rounds, the nurse found a manic-depressive client who is taking lithium in a confused mental state, vomiting, twitching, and exhibiting a coarse hand tremor. Which one of the following nursing actions is essential at this time?
- A. Contact the lab and request a lithium level in 30 minutes, and call the physician.
- B. Place her on NPO to decrease the excretion of lithium from her body, and call the physician.
- C. Withhold her lithium, and report her symptoms to the physician.
- D. Administer her next dosage of lithium, and then call the physician.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) The client has lithium toxicity, and the nurse must withhold further dosages. (B) Because of her level of toxicity, further lithium could cause coma and death. The nurse needs further orders from the physician to stabilize the client's lithium level. (C) Ensuring adequate intake of sodium chloride will promote excretion of lithium and will assist in managing the client's lithiumtoxicity. (D) A lithium blood level must be drawn immediately to determine the seriousness of the toxicity and to provide the physician with data for medical orders.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A client is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis.
The emergency room nurse should anticipate the administration of:
- A. Humulin L
- B. Humulin R
- C. Humulin N
- D. Humulin U
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Intermediate-acting insulin is not indicated in an emergency. (B) Regular insulin is rapid acting and indicated in an emergency situation. (C) Long-acting insulin is not indicated in an emergency situation. (D) Intermediate-acting insulin is not indicated in an emergency situation.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Early in her ninth month of pregnancy, a client has been diagnosed as having mild preeclampsia. In counseling her about her diet, the nurse must emphasize the importance of:
- A. Decreasing her sodium intake
- B. Eating a moderate to high-protein diet
- C. Increasing her carbohydrate intake
- D. Decreasing her fluids
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Women with pregnancy-induced hypertension have a reduced plasma volume secondary to venous vessel constriction, not hypovolemia; therefore, sodium restriction is not recommended. It is suggested that these women avoid extremely salty foods. (B) Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day facilitates optimal fluid volume and renal perfusion, but it will not decrease the venous vessel constriction of pregnancy-induced hypertension. (C) Carbohydrate needs increase during pregnancy, specifically during the second and third trimesters, but they have not been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension. (D) Loss of urinary protein (proteinuria) is associated with increased permeability of the large protein molecules with pregnancy-induced hypertension.Additional dietary protein also helps increase the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Diets deficient in protein have been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension.
NEW QUESTION # 40
The nurse assists a client with advanced emphysema to the bathroom. The client becomes extremely short of breath while returning to bed. The nurse should:
- A. Place him in a lateral Sims' position
- B. Have him breathe into a paper bag
- C. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
- D. Increase his nasal O2 to 6 L/min
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Giving too high a concentration of O2 to a client with em-physema may remove his stimulus to breathe.
(B) The client should sit forward with his hands on his knees or an overbed table and with shoulders elevated.
(C) Pursed-lip breathing helps the client to blow off CO2 and to keep air passages open. (D) Covering the face of a client extremely short of breath may cause anxiety and further increase dyspnea.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A family by court order undergoes treatment by a family therapist for child abuse. The nurse, who is the child's case manager knows that treatment has been effective when:
- A. The child is removed from the home and placed in foster care
- B. The child's parents identify the ways in which he is different from the rest of the family
- C. The child's parents can identify appropriate behaviors for children in his age group
- D. The child's father is arrested for child abuse
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Removing an abused child from the home and placement in a foster home are not the desired outcome of treatment. (B) Children who are perceived as "different" from the rest of the family are more likely to be abused. (C) Although legal action may be taken against abusive parents, it is not an indicator of an effective treatment program. (D) Identification of age-appropriate behaviors is essential to the role of parents, because misunderstanding children's normal developmental needs often contributes to abuse or neglect.
NEW QUESTION # 42
The physician of an alcoholic client places him on a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. When choosing his menu, the client's best choice from the items below would be:
- A. Liver and onions, macaroni and cheese, tea with sugar
- B. Waffles with butter and honey, orange juice
- C. Cheese omelette with ham and mushrooms, milk
- D. Baked chicken, baked potato with bacon bits, milk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A, B, D) These foods are high in protein, which needs to be restricted. (C) Serum ammonia levels can be decreased by restricting dietary protein intake. Waffles, honey, and orange juice are high in carbohydrate and low or completely lacking in protein. Butter, a concentrated fat, will provide extra calories.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Priapism may be a sign of:
- A. Reproductive dysfunction
- B. Imminent death
- C. Altered neurological function
- D. Urinary incontinence
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Priapism in the trauma client is due to the neurological dysfunction seen in spinal cord injury. Priapism is an abnormal erection of the penis; it may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. This may disappear as spinal cord edema is relieved. (B) Priapism is not associated with death. (C) Urinary retention, rather than incontinence, may occur. (D) Reproductive dysfunction may be a secondary problem.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following when assessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?
- A. A ham and cheese sandwich
- B. Saltine crackers and peanut butter
- C. A milkshake
- D. Fresh fruit
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) High levels of ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, can precipitate metabolic encephalopathy. These clients need a diet high in carbohydrates and bulk. (B) Metabolic encephalopathy of the brain associated with liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism. (C, D) Metabolic encephalopathy in liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A male infant is to be discharged home this morning. Which instruction related to his cord care should be included in his mother's discharge teaching plan?
- A. Clean the umbilical cord with alcohol at each diaper change.
- B. Keep the umbilical area moist with Vaseline until the stump falls off.
- C. Clean the umbilical cord daily with soap and water during the bath.
- D. Keep the umbilical area covered at all times with the diaper.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The umbilical area should be kept dry for healing to occur. Moisture is conducive to bacterial growth and therefore could lead to infection at the site. (B) The diaper should be folded below the cord to allow the cord stump to be exposed to the air for healing. (C) The umbilical cord should be swabbed with alcohol at each diaper change to remove urine and stool and to facilitate the desiccation process through drying. (D) Soap and water should not be used to clean the umbilical area because the area could retain moisture, thus making it susceptible to bacterial growth and infection.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Legg-Calve Perthes disease. Which of the client's responses would indicate compliance during initial therapy?
- A. Not bearing weight on affected extremity
- B. Walking short distances 3 times/day
- C. Drinking large amounts of milk
- D. Putting self on weight reduction diet
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This condition causes aseptic necrosis of the head of the femur in the acetabulum. Drinking large quantities of milk at this time cannot hasten recovery. (B) The aim of treatment is to keep the head of the femur in the acetabulum. Non-weight-bearing is essential. Activity causes microfractures of the epiphysis. (C) In addition to non-weightbearing, clients are often placed on bedrest, which helps to reduce inflammation. Later, active motion is encouraged. (D) Weight is not generally an issue with this disease. Slipped femoral capital epiphysis, which is most frequently observed in obese pubescent children, usually requires a weight reduction diet.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following findings would necessitate discontinuing an IV potassium infusion in an adult with ketoacidosis?
- A. Serum potassium level of 3.7
- B. Serum glucose level of 180
- C. Small T wave of ECG
- D. Urine output 22 mL/hr for 2 hours
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Adequate renal flow of 30 mL/hr is a necessity with potassium infusions because potassium is excreted renally. (B) Because potassium level will decrease during correction of diabetic ketoacidosis, potassium will be infused even if plasma levels of potassium are normal. (C) A small T wave is normal and desired on the electrocardiogram. A tall, peaked T-wave could indicate overinfusion of potassium and hyperkalemia. (D) Glucose levels of <200 are desirable.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A male client is being treated in the burn unit for thirddegree burns on his head, neck, and upper chest received in the last 24 hours. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation. Which of the following indicates effective fluid balance?
- A. His blood pressure is 94/62.
- B. His urine output is equal to his total fluid intake.
- C. His weight increases from 165 to 175 lb.
- D. His urine output has been>35 mL/hr for the past 12 hours.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A weight gain of 10 lb represents a state of overhydration. (B) He is losing fluids through insensible losses; a urine output equal to his intake indicates that he is receiving too little fluids. (C) A urine output greater than his intake indicates that he is receiving adequate fluid resuscitation to account for urinary and insensible losses. (D) A blood pressure of 94/62 indicates a state of underhydration and inadequate circulatory volume.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A child is admitted with severe headache, fever, vomiting, photophobia, drowsiness, and stiff neck associated with viral meningitis. She will be more comfortable if the nurse:
- A. Dims the lights in her room
- B. Places a large, soft pillow under her head
- C. Encourages her to breathe slowly and deeply
- D. Offers sips of warm liquids
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) The discomfort of photophobia is alleviated by dimming the lights. (B) Helping the child to breathe slowly and deeply may help to reduce anxiety, but it will not alleviate other discomforts of viral meningitis. (C) It is important to maintain fluid balance, but sips of warm liquids do not alleviate the discomforts of meningitis. (D) A large, soft pillow under her head causing neck flexion is likely to increase her discomfort owing to stretching of the meninges.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A female client has a chest tube placed. It is accidentally pulled out of the intrapleural space when she is ambulating. The first action the nurse should take is to:
- A. Auscultate the lung to determine if she needs the tube replaced
- B. Apply a petrolatum dressing over the site
- C. Put on sterile gloves and replace the tube
- D. Instruct the client to cough deeply to re-expand her lung
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This action is inappropriate. Coughing will not re-expand the lung and could result in further harm. (B) This action is a medical procedure, not a nursing procedure. (C) An occlusive dressing will prevent further air leak until the physician institutes further treatment. (D) The decision to reinsert the tube is a medical decision, not a nursing one.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following when assessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?
- A. A ham and cheese sandwich
- B. Saltine crackers and peanut butter
- C. A milkshake
- D. Fresh fruit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) High levels of ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, can precipitate metabolic encephalopathy.
These clients need a diet high in carbohydrates and bulk. (B) Metabolic encephalopathy of the brain associated with liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.
(C, D) Metabolic encephalopathy in liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.
NEW QUESTION # 52
During the assessment, the nurse observes a client scratching his skin. He has been admitted to rule out Laennec's cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse knows the pruritus is directly related to:
- A. Enhanced detoxification of drugs
- B. Faulty processing of bilirubin
- C. The formation of collateral circulation
- D. A loss of phagocytic activity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) A loss in the phagocytic activity of the Kupffer cells occurs with cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the susceptibility to infections. (B) The faulty processing of bilirubin produces bilesalts, which are irritating to the skin. (C) The detoxification of drugs is impaired with cirrhosis of the liver. (D) Collateral circulation develops due to portal hypertension. This is manifest through the development of esophageal varices, hemorrhoids, and caput medusae.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A 68-year-old man was recently diagnosed with endstage renal disease. He has not yet begun dialysis but is experiencing severe anemia with associated symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. Which statement best describes the management of anemia in renal failure?
- A. Transfusion is often begun as early as possible to prevent complications of anemia such as dyspnea and angina.
- B. Hematocrit levels usually remain slightly below normalin clients with renal failure.
- C. The renal secretion of erythropoiesis is decreased. The bone marrow requires erythropoietin to mature red blood cells.
- D. Anemia in renal failure is frequently caused by low serum iron and ferritin and corrected by oral iron and ferritin replacement therapy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Clients in renal failure typically have very low hematocrits, often in the range of 16-22%. (B) Transfusion is avoided unless the client exhibits acute symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and extreme fatigue. When the client is given a transfusion, the bone marrow adjusts by producing less red blood cells. (C) Anemia in renal failure is caused primarily by decreased erythropoietin. Low serum iron and ferritin may aggravate the anemia and require treatment. (D) Decreased secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is the primary cause of anemia. The bone marrow requires this hormone to mature red blood cells. Treatment is with replacement therapy.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Parents should be taught not to prop the bottle when feeding their infants. In addition to the risk of choking, it puts the infant at risk for:
- A. Tonsillitis
- B. Asthma
- C. Otitis media
- D. Conjunctivitis
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A)
Because the eustachian tube is short and straight in the infant, formula that pools in the back of the throat attacks bacteria which can enter the middle ear and cause an infection.
(B)
Asthma is not associated with propping the bottle. (C) Conjunctivitis is an eye infection and not associated with propping the bottle. (D) Tonsillitis is usually a result of pharyngitis and not propping the bottle.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A client is having an amniocentesis. Prior to the procedure, an ultrasound is performed. In preparing the client, the nurse explains the reason for a sonogram in this situation to be:
- A. Determination of fetal age
- B. Determination of gross anomalies
- C. Determination of placental location
- D. Determination of multiple gestations
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Sonography can be used to determine the presence of multiple gestation. In this question, the sonogram is used as a preparatory step for a specific invasive procedure. (B) Sonography can be used to determine the presence of gross anomalies. In this question, the sonogram is used as a preparatory step for a specific invasive procedure. (C) Prior to amniocentesis, the abdomen is scanned by ultrasound to locate the placenta, thus reducing the possibility of penetrating it with the spinal needle used to obtain amniotic fluid. (D) Sonography can be used to determine fetal age. In this question, the sonogram is used as a preparatory step for a specific invasive procedure.
NEW QUESTION # 56
The predominant purpose of the first Apgar scoring of a newborn is to:
- A. Determine gross abnormal motor function
- B. Obtain a baseline for comparison with the infant's future adaptation to the environment
- C. Determine the extent of congenital malformations
- D. Evaluate the infant's vital functions
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) Apgar scores are not related to the infant's care, but to the infant's physical condition. (B) Apgar scores assess the current physical condition of the infant and are not related to future environmental adaptation. (C) The purpose of the Apgar system is to evaluate the physical condition of the newborn at birth and to determine if there is an immediate need for resuscitation. (D) Congenital malformations are not one of the areas assessed with Apgar scores.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A 65-year-old client who has a new colostomy is preparing for discharge from the hospital. As part of the instructions on colostomy care, the nurse explains to the client that to regulate the bowel, colostomy irrigation should be performed at the same time each day. The best time is:
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. Every 2 hours
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Bowel movements should be regulated at a specific time each day to prevent "accidents." Irrigating after meals takes advantage of the gastrocolic reflex and time of increased peristalsis, so better results may be produced. After meals is the normal time that peristalsis begins in most persons and evacuation of feces occurs. (B) Irrigating before meals may cause poor results because of decreased gastrocolic reflex and decreased peristalsis. (C) Irrigating a colostomy every 2 hours may produce hyperactivity of the bowel, leading to irritation and diarrhea. This would not aid in regulation of the bowel. (D) If irrigation of a colostomy were done at bedtime, there is greater chance of having an "accident" during sleep. This would not be an advantageous practice of bowel regulation.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A 52-year-old client who underwent an exploratory laparotomy for a bowel obstruction begins to complain of hunger on the third postoperative day. His nasogastric (NG) tube was removed this morning, and he has an IV of D5W with 0.45% normal saline running at 125 mL/hr. He asks when he can get rid of his IV and start eating.
The nurse recognizes that he will be able to begin taking oral fluids and nourishment when:
- A. His blood pressure returns to its preoperative baseline level or greater
- B. It is determined that he has no signs of wound infection
- C. The nurse can detect bowel sounds in all four quadrants
- D. He is able to eat a full meal without evidence of nausea or vomiting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) The absence of wound infection is related to his surgical wound and not to postoperative GI functioning and return of peristalsis. (B) Routine postoperative protocol involves detection of bowel sounds and return of peristalsis before introduction of clear liquids, followed by progression of full liquids and a regular diet versus a full regular meal first. (C) Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction is to assess for the return of bowel sounds within 72 hours after major surgery, because that is when bowel sounds normally return. If unable to detect bowel sounds, the surgeon should be notified immediately and have the client remain NPO.
(D) Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction and other major surgeries involves frequent monitoring of vital signs in the immediate postoperative period (in recovery room) and then every 4 hours, or more frequently if the client is unstable, on the nursing unit. This includes assessing for signs of hypovolemic shock. Vital signs usually stabilize within the first 24 hours postoperatively.
NEW QUESTION # 59
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The Safe and Effective Care Environment category covers topics such as management of care, infection control, and safety and quality improvement. The Health Promotion and Maintenance category includes areas such as disease prevention, health promotion, and early detection of illness. The Psychosocial Integrity category deals with patient and family-centered care, cultural diversity, and mental health. The Physiological Integrity category covers topics such as basic care and comfort, pharmacological and parenteral therapies, and reduction of risk potential.
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