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Cisco 300-215 (Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps) Certification Exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of cybersecurity professionals in conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies. Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps certification exam is ideal for those who are looking to enhance their expertise in the field of cybersecurity and aim to work as a forensic analyst or incident responder in the industry.
Exam Topics for Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR)
The following will be practiced in CISCO 300-215 practice exam and CISCO 300-215 practice exams:
- Incident Response Processes
- Forensics Processes
- Fundamentals
- Security Monitoring
- Incident Response Techniques
NEW QUESTION # 40
Refer to the exhibit.
What should be determined from this Apache log?
- A. The certificate file has been maliciously modified
- B. A module named mod_ssl is needed to make SSL connections.
- C. The SSL traffic setup is improper
- D. The private key does not match with the SSL certificate.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 41
A threat hunter must analyze the threat intelligence report on APT29 and identify whether the threat actor is on the Windows machines of the customer network. According to the report the user executes a malicious file on the victim machine that establishes a C? connection over port 53 Afterward, the attacker uses a CI.I to stage and exfiltrate business data. Which two types of logs enable the threat hunter to accomplish the task?
(Choose two.)
- A. NetFlow logs
- B. PowerShell togs
- C. web application firewall logs
- D. file integrity monitoring logs
- E. DNS logs
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION # 42
Refer to the exhibit.
A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?
- A. True Positive alert
- B. True Negative alert
- C. False Negative alert
- D. False Positive alert
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which technique is used to evade detection from security products by executing arbitrary code in the address space of a separate live operation?
- A. GPO modification
- B. privilege escalation
- C. process injection
- D. token manipulation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Process injectionis a tactic where malicious code is inserted into the memory space of another process, enabling it to run with the privileges and context of a legitimate application. The Cisco study guide explains that this method allows malware to "hide in plain sight" within trusted processes and evade endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools.
It specifically notes:"Process injection techniques allow malware to execute within the memory space of a legitimate process, avoiding detection and taking advantage of the process's permissions.".
NEW QUESTION # 44 
- A. Validate the SSL certificate for 23.1.4.14.
- B. Generate a Windows executable file.
- C. Open the Mozilla Firefox browser.
- D. Initiate a connection to 23.1.4.14 over port 8443.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This Python script uses a combination of libraries (urllib,zlib,base64, andssl) to:
* Disable SSL certificate verification (ssl.CERT_NONEandcheck_hostname=False).
* Construct a custom HTTPS opener with the specified SSL context.
* Add a forgedUser-Agentheader to mimic Internet Explorer 11.
* Connect to the URLhttps://23.1.4.14:8443.
* Download and execute base64-encoded and zlib-compressed content from that URL using:
exec(zlib.decompress(base64.b64decode(...).read()))
This shows a classic example of:
* Downloading payloads from a remote server (23.1.4.14:8443).
* Avoiding detection by disabling SSL verification.
* Executing the payload dynamically withexec()after decoding and decompressing.
The main goal is clearly to initiate a connection to a remote command-and-control (C2) server on port 8443 and download/execute additional code.
Hence, the correct answer is: A. Initiate a connection to 23.1.4.14 over port 8443.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A workstation uploads encrypted traffic to a known clean domain over TCP port 80. What type of attack is occurring, according to the MITRE ATT&CK matrix?
- A. Command and Control Activity
- B. Exfiltration Over Asymmetric Encrypted Non-C2 Protocol
- C. Exfiltration Over C2 Channel
- D. Exfiltration Over Web Service
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the MITRE ATT&CK matrix, when encrypted traffic is tunneled through a legitimate protocol such as HTTP (port 80) to a non-malicious domain, this aligns with the tactic "Exfiltration Over Asymmetric Encrypted Non-C2 Protocol" (T1048.002). The attacker is trying to hide exfiltration in otherwise benign traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 46
An engineer is analyzing a DoS attack and notices that the perpetrator used a different IP address to hide their system IP address and avoid detection. Which anti-forensics technique did the perpetrator use?
- A. cache poisoning
- B. encapsulation
- C. onion routing
- D. spoofing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using adifferent IP addressto disguise the origin of an attack is the definition ofIP spoofing.
"Spoofing involves falsifying data, such as IP or MAC addresses, to hide the source of malicious activity." - Cisco CyberOps guide
NEW QUESTION # 47
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the indicator of compromise?
- A. indicator ID: malware--a932fcc6-e032-476c-826f-cb970a569bce
- B. MD5 file hash
- C. SHA256 file hash
- D. indicator type: malicious-activity
Answer: C
Explanation:
The STIX data structure shows a pattern field with this entry:
file:hashes.'SHA-256' = '3299f07bc0711b3587fe8a1c6bf3ee6cbcc14cb775f64b28a61d72ebcb8968d3' This value is a SHA-256 file hash, a well-known indicator of compromise (IoC) for identifying malicious files.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
A). SHA256 file hash.
NEW QUESTION # 48
During a recent incident response investigation, several suspicious network connections originating from a specific host were identified. The host was quickly isolated and the machine was rebuilt During the post mortem, it became clear that there was unpreparedness regarding network artifacts necessitating adjustments to the playbooks to address this data from multiple sources must be correlated. Which two sources should be prioritized for data gathering? (Choose two.)
- A. user authentication logs and packet capture data
- B. Netflow data and host firewall logs
- C. application and system error logs
- D. antivirus alerts and system event togs
- E. DNS logs and web server togs
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 49
Refer to the exhibit.
An employee notices unexpected changes and setting modifications on their workstation and creates an incident ticket. A support specialist checks processes and services but does not identify anything suspicious.
The ticket was escalated to an analyst who reviewed this event log and also discovered that the workstation had multiple large data dumps on network shares. What should be determined from this information?
- A. data obfuscation
- B. brute-force attack
- C. log tampering
- D. reconnaissance attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The event log shown in the exhibit is Event ID 104, which in Windows indicates "The audit log was cleared.
" This is a significant indicator of log tampering, a common post-exploitation technique used by attackers to hide their tracks after exfiltrating data or performing unauthorized actions.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide mentions:
"Log deletion events, especially Event ID 104, should be treated as potential evidence of malicious activity attempting to cover tracks".
Combined with large data dumps to network shares, this indicates not only unauthorized activity but also deliberate efforts to erase forensic evidence-characteristic of log tampering.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Refer to the exhibit.
Which determination should be made by a security analyst?
- A. An email was sent with an attachment named "Final Report.doc.exe".
- B. An email was sent with an attachment named "Grades.doc.exe".
- C. An email was sent with an attachment named "Final Report.doc".
- D. An email was sent with an attachment named "Grades.doc".
Answer: A
Explanation:
The XML structure shows that:
* The file namestarts with:"Final Report"
* The file extensionequals:"doc.exe"
Together, this forms"Final Report.doc.exe"- a knowndouble-extensiontechnique used todisguise executablesas benign documents. This is a red flag in email forensics, commonly linked tomalware distribution, and explicitly covered in the Cisco CyberOps study material as a typicalevasion methodfor malicious attachments.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Refer to the exhibit.
What is occurring?
- A. The threat actor creates persistence by creating a repeatable task.
- B. Malware is modifying the registry keys.
- C. RDP is used to move laterally to systems within the victim environment.
- D. Obfuscated scripts are getting executed on the victim machine.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command in the image usesschtasks /createwith theONLOGONschedule andSystemuser context to executetest.exe. This is a well-documented persistence technique, where an attacker ensures that a malicious executable is launched automatically at each system logon. This kind of scheduled task creation aligns with persistence techniques in the MITRE ATT&CK framework (T1053).
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NEW QUESTION # 52
A new zero-day vulnerability is discovered in the web application. Vulnerability does not require physical access and can be exploited remotely. Attackers are exploiting the new vulnerability by submitting a form with malicious content that grants them access to the server. After exploitation, attackers delete the log files to hide traces. Which two actions should the security engineer take next? (Choose two.)
- A. Enable file integrity monitoring.
- B. Update web application to the latest version.
- C. Block connections on port 443.
- D. Install antivirus.
- E. Validate input upon submission.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
* Input validation (A) is a critical countermeasure to defend against command injection and related vulnerabilities, as discussed in the Cisco guide. Proper validation ensures that malicious commands or payloads are not accepted or executed by the web application.
* File integrity monitoring (E) helps detect unauthorized changes such as log deletion or binary modification, making it a crucial tool in recognizing and investigating tampering attempts.Blocking port
443 (B) would disable HTTPS and is not a practical solution. Antivirus (C) does not prevent form- based application attacks, and merely updating the application (D) may not be sufficient without addressing the underlying input validation flaw.
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NEW QUESTION # 53
Which tool is used for reverse engineering malware?
- A. NMAP
- B. Ghidra
- C. SNORT
- D. Wireshark
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.nsa.gov/resources/everyone/ghidra/#:~:text=Ghidra%20is%20a%20software%
20reverse,in%20their%20networks%20and%20systems.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which scripts will search a log file for the IP address of 192.168.100.100 and create an output file named parsed_host.log while printing results to the console?
- A. Option A
- B. Option C
- C. Option B
- D. Option D
Answer: C
Explanation:
To determine the correct script, we evaluate the following requirements:
* The script must search for the IP address 192.168.100.100.
* The output should be written to a file named parsed_host.log.
* The matching lines should be printed to the console.
Analysis of the options:
* Option A: Correct IP regex used and correct output filename, but reads from parsed_host.log instead of a source log file like test_log.log (not ideal for initial parsing).
* Option C: The IP address used is 192.168.100.101 instead of 192.168.100.100 - incorrect.
* Option D: Same IP address and logic as Option B, but uses print statement without parentheses, which is not valid in Python 3 unless using Python 2 - not ideal.
# Option B:
* Uses correct IP: "192.168.100.100"
* Reads from test_log.log (presumably the source log file).
* Writes to output/parsed_host.log.
* Prints each matching line and writes to output file - satisfying all conditions.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on "Investigating Host-Based Evidence and Logs" emphasizes scripting log parsing tasks using Python's regex and file I/O for filtering artifacts like IP addresses. Scripts should ensure proper source log input, pattern matching, result redirection, and optional output logging for forensics analysis.
ChatGPT said:
NEW QUESTION # 55
Refer to the exhibit.
A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts.
The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?
- A. True Positive alert
- B. True Negative alert
- C. False Negative alert
- D. False Positive alert
Answer: D
Explanation:
The alert shown is based on a Snort rule for a Unicode directory traversal attack against IIS web servers (Microsoft platform). The key detail here is the payload content "../..%c0%af../" which is a classic IIS-specific exploit related to CVE-2000-0884.
Since the company only uses Unix systems, they are not vulnerable to this IIS-specific attack. Therefore, these alerts are triggered by irrelevant traffic or misapplied signatures, resulting in False Positives.
As defined in the Cisco CyberOps guide:
"False Positive: an alert is generated for traffic that is not actually malicious or relevant to the protected environment".
NEW QUESTION # 56 
- A. Bash
- B. VBScript
- C. Python
- D. shell
Answer: C
Explanation:
The code includes syntax and modules such asimport win32con,import win32api, and uses Python-specific formatting likedef,try/except, andprint, clearly indicating that this is written in Python. It also uses thewmimodule to monitor process creation events-a common technique in Python-based process monitoring scripts on Windows.
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NEW QUESTION # 57
A security team received reports of users receiving emails linked to external or unknown URLs that are non- returnable and non-deliverable. The ISP also reported a 500% increase in the amount of ingress and egress email traffic received. After detecting the problem, the security team moves to the recovery phase in their incident response plan. Which two actions should be taken in the recovery phase of this incident? (Choose two.)
- A. scan hosts with updated signatures
- B. remove vulnerabilities
- C. request packet capture
- D. verify the breadth of the attack
- E. collect logs
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
In therecovery phase, the goal is to restore affected systems to normal operations and ensure the threat has been completely eradicated. According to the CyberOps Associate guide:
"This phase may include restoring data from clean backups, replacing compromised systems, and the re- installation of the Operating System (OS) and applications".
Also:
"During recovery, scanning hosts with updated antivirus and removing vulnerabilities ensures systems do not get reinfected".
NEW QUESTION # 58
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of code created the snippet?
- A. PowerShell
- B. Python
- C. VB Script
- D. Bash Script
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 59
What describes the first step in performing a forensic analysis of infrastructure network devices?
- A. immediately disconnecting the device from the network
- B. resetting the device to factory settings and analyzing the difference
- C. producing an accurate, forensic-grade duplicate of the device's data
- D. initiating an immediate full system scan
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first and most important step in forensic analysis is to preserve the integrity of the data. According to best practices outlined in the Cisco CyberOps Associate guide and NIST 800-86, forensic investigators must first produce a forensically sound, bit-by-bit copy of the system's data (i.e., imaging). This enables analysis to occur without altering the original evidence, which is essential for legal admissibility and maintaining the chain of custody.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A cybersecurity analyst must identify an unknown service causing high CPU on a Windows server. What tool should be used?
- A. TCPdump to capture and analyze network packets
- B. SIFT (SANS Investigative Forensic Toolkit) for comprehensive digital forensics
- C. Volatility to analyze memory dumps for forensic investigation
- D. Process Explorer from the Sysinternals Suite to monitor and examine active processes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Process Explorer is an advanced Windows-based utility that shows real-time data about running processes, CPU usage, services, DLLs, and handles. It is specifically designed for this kind of investigation and is part of the Sysinternals Suite.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is analyzing a Wireshark file to determine the HTTP request that caused the initial Ursnif banking Trojan binary to download. Which filter did the engineer apply to sort the Wireshark traffic logs?
- A. tcp.window_size ==0
- B. http.request.un matches
- C. tls.handshake.type ==1
- D. tcp.port eq 25
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 62 
Refer to the exhibit. An HR department submitted a ticket to the IT helpdesk indicating slow performance on an internal share server. The helpdesk engineer checked the server with a real-time monitoring tool and did not notice anything suspicious. After checking the event logs, the engineer noticed an event that occurred 48 hour prior. Which two indicators of compromise should be determined from this information?
(Choose two.)
- A. denial of service attack
- B. privilege escalation
- C. compromised root access
- D. malware outbreak
- E. unauthorized system modification
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 63
Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 64
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound tcp/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
- A. enterprise block listing solution
- B. intrusion prevention system
- C. anti-malware software
- D. data and workload isolation
- E. centralized user management
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The eradication phase in incident response involveseliminating the root cause of the incidentand strengthening defenses to prevent reoccurrence. In this case:
* Intrusion Prevention System (D): Adding new rules to the IPS to detect and block malicious activity on TCP/135 is a direct eradication step to remove the threat's entry point and prevent future attacks.
* Centralized User Management (C): Hardening user accounts, removing unnecessary permissions, and applying tighter authentication/authorization measures helps eliminate the possibility that threat actors could exploit weak or mismanaged accounts to continue accessing the system.
Althoughanti-malware software (A)andenterprise block listing (E)are valuable, themost direct eradication stepshere specifically involve managing network access (via IPS) and strengthening user controls (via centralized user management), especially when TCP/135 (MSRPC endpoint mapper) can be used to enumerate services and potentially access vulnerable endpoints remotely.
This aligns with best practices outlined in incident response frameworks (such as the NIST SP 800-61 and referenced resources), which emphasizeclosing the exploited entry points(in this case, TCP/135) and removing any lingering access pointsthrough user management and network control enhancements.
Reference:
CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding the Incident Response Process, Eradication Phase, page 105-106.
External Reference: "The Core Phases of Incident Response - Remediation," Cipher blog [1].
External Reference: "Service Overview and Network Port Requirements," Microsoft documentation [2].
NEW QUESTION # 65
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Cisco 300-215 exam covers a wide range of topics that are essential for conducting forensic analysis and incident response. These topics include network protocols, threat intelligence, security event analysis, incident response frameworks, and digital forensics. 300-215 exam is also designed to test the candidate's ability to use Cisco technologies such as Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE), Cisco Stealthwatch, and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) to detect and respond to security incidents.
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